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Exam Code: VCAW510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Workforce Mobility (VCAWM))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How do virtual desktops locate the nearest printer to the user?
A. Printers are located through a pre-configured list that is stored on the ESXi physical host
B. Printers are selected for the user by the administrator
C. Printers are randomly chosen per print job
D. Printers are defined through a GPO
Answer: D

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Reference:http://myvirtualcloud.net/?p=2436(second para of the page)

NO.2 How are fully provisioned desktops created for automated pools, whether floating or
dedicated?
A. They are deployed from a pre-configured template
B. They are cloned from an existing desktop
C. They are deployed form an existing .ISO image
D. They are created from scratch
Answer: A

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/view-51 /topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/view-51architecture-pl
anning.pdf(page 10, 6th bullet)

NO.3 You are a VMware consultant. You have a client with several users that are contract
accountants and must have their virtual desktops with them when they are at a client's site. Which
solution will help resolve this issue?
A. View Client with Local Mode
B. View Administrator
C. Horizon Mirage
D. Linked Clones
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/support/ws55 /doc/ws_clone_overview.html(See linked clones)

NO.4 Your client would like to be able to manage their files and applications from a single
management interface. Which solution can provide this functionality?
A. Horizon Mirage
B. Horizon Workspace
C. vCenter Operations Manager for View
D. View Administrator
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/pdf/view45_admin_guide.pdf

NO.5 You would like to manage both your physical and virtual desktops from a single management
interface. Which feature can provide this option?
A. View Composer
B. vCenter Operations Manager for View
C. Horizon Mirage
D. Endpoint
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/support/ws55 /doc/ws_clone_overview.html(see full clones)

NO.6 Which two are viable options fortwo-factoruser authentication with Horizon View? (Choose
two.)
A. RADIUS server
B. Smart Card
C. AD credentials
D. Fingerprint Scanner
Answer: A,B

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/view51 /index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.view.administration.d
oc%2FGUID-70879B1F-1DB345EA-8D12-C93906F11959.html

NO.7 You are the VMware administrator for your company. A member of the Help Desk has asked if
HA can be used with Horizon View. How should you respond?
A. HA will restart Horizon View virtual desktops as configured by the administrator
B. HA will restart Horizon View desktops, but will restart them after all other virtual machines have
been restarted
C. HA does not support virtual desktops deployed through Horizon View
D. HA will only restart Windows-based virtual desktops
Answer: A

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/view52 /index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.view.planning.doc%2
FGUID-32026.352-0AC3-4E29B72F-C95465E7894C.html

NO.8 You are the VMware administrator for your company. One of the System Admins has expressed
concern over a failed patching process that resulted in the re-imaging of a physical desktop. Which
solution will help in this situation?
A. ThinApp
B. Horizon Mirage
C. Horizon Workspace
D. Full Clones
Answer: D

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NO.9 How can Persona Management improve virtual desktop performance?
A. Persona Management allows the user to store their desktop and settings to a USB device to
improve recovery
B. Persona Management is used to save frequently used files to a local SSD device to improve read
performance
C. Persona Management downloads the user's settings and desktop on demand, rather than
downloading the entire configuration at logon time
D. Persona Management allows the VMware administrator to store all user documents and settings
directly to a VMFS datastore
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvmware.techtarget.com/feature/The-all-too-common-failed-VMware-View-
setup-and-how-to-avoid-it(see profiles)

NO.10 You are the VMware Administrator for your company. You would like to use VoIP along with
your virtual desktops. Which of the following Horizon View features is specifically designed to
support this option?
A. Horizon View Voice over IP (VoIP) Client
B. View Composer
C. View Media Services for Integrated Unified Communications
D. ThinApp
Answer: C

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Reference:https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=7&ved=0
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5thbullet on the page)

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Exam Code: TB0-113
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Business Studio 3.2 Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the default Button Type property value of the Submit button on a TIBCO Business Studio Form?
A. apply
B. close
C. submit
D. primary
E. peripheral
F. associative
Answer: D

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NO.2 When configuring a Database Service Task, what is the only valid option for the TIBCO iProcess Engine
for the Operation?
A. Alter
B. Select
C. Delete
D. Update
E. Stored Procedure
Answer: E

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NO.3 A connection to a TIBCO iProcess Engine deployment server has failed with a connection error. What
should be verified in order to solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The web server is running
B. The destination server is running.
C. The Hawk Agent service is running.
D. The connecting user is a domain administrator.
E. The username and password in the destination properties match aniProcess user credential.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
What could be a possible problem with the Parallel gateway P2 with the problem marker?
A. Parallel gateways can have only three input/output flows.
B. Parallel gateways cannot have unconditional input/output flows.
C. Parallel gateways can have only unconditional input/output flows.
D. Parallel gateways with incoming Service Tasks cannot have output parameters mapped.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the process flow shown in the exhibit, the Catch Timer Intermediate Event on the "Enter
Customer Data" task is set to "Continue Task On Timeout". Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the "Enter Customer Data" task is opened, the Timer Event will be cancelled.
B. When the Timer Event expires, the "Management Chase" task will be delivered.
C. If the "Management Chase" task is completed, the "Enter Customer Data" task will be
automatically withdrawn.
D. When the "Enter Customer Data" task is completed, the "Management Chase" task will be withdrawn if
it exists.
E. If the "Management Chase" task is completed, the process will automatically continue to the "Contact
Customer" task.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are four TIBCO Business Studio basic data types? (Choose four.)
A. Float
B. Date
C. Long
D. Boolean
E. Date Time
F. Integer Number
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.7 You are a supervisor of a group of analysts at your company. Your business analysts do not have
sufficient experience to understand the configuration of web services and integration components.
How would you hide the technical implementation details from your business analysts?
A. use the Window > Show View menu option to disable the technical details
B. select the Enable/Disable Technical Details icon and de-select the Technical Details option
C. use the Diagram > Enable/Disable Technical Details menu option to disable technical details
D. select the Enable/Disable Business Studio Capabilities icon and de-select the Solution Design option
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two valid methods for populating an Option List on a TIBCO form? (Choose two.)
A. add a list name in the Option List's Values field
B. create a web service on the Advanced Property tab
C. enter static values on the Properties tab for the Option List control
D. configure the name of an array parameter in the mapping expressions dialog
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, STEP1 is outstanding. What is the purpose of RXTASK?
A. to close a case
B. to pause a case
C. to withdraw STEP1
D. to update case data
E. to start a parallel flow
F. to move the case to STEP2
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the purpose of the Receive Task when deployed to TIBCO iProcess Engine?
A. to start a sub-process
B. to update case data in a case
C. to pause a process for a predefined period
D. to receive a new attachment into the process
E. to receive a mail message from an external party
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Catch Timer Intermediate Event is placed on the boundary of a User Task. Which two
configuration options are valid if the process is to be deployed to the TIBCO iProcess Engine? (Choose
two.)
A. Cycle timeout value
B. Withdraw TaskOn Timeout
C. Date and/or Time timeout value
D. Withdraw Task and Reset Timeout
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are two valid advanced properties on the process level? (Choose two.)
A. Ignore Case Suspend
B. Enable Case Prediction
C. Priority Value Expression
D. Ignore Blank Addressees
E. Use DeadlineFor Task Duration
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which key combination is used to display Content Assist for a function used in a script?
A. Ctrl + C
B. Ctrl + F1
C. Ctrl + Space
D. Ctrl + Alt + Space
Answer: C

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NO.14 You want to prioritize work items in a queue so that users process high-priority work items first.
These items should appear at the top of the list. How is this accomplished?
A. sort the Work Item List by priority ascending
B. sort the Work Item List by priority descending
C. select the Sort By Priority flag in the View menu
D. display the Priority column in theiProcess Workspace (Browser) Client
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about Task scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Task Close Scripts will affect central case data.
B. Task Submit Scripts will affect central case data.
C. Task Close Scripts can be used to remove tasks from queues.
D. Task Open Scripts can be used to pre-load values into data fields prior to a task being opened.
E. Task Open Scripts can be used to manipulate field data prior to the task being delivered to a queue.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 While modeling a Service Task, and configuring it to use TIBCO BusinessWorks, the user needs to
ensure that the endpoint name matches the JMS destination that was created in TIBCO iProcess Engine,
renaming the System Participant if necessary. Which two options support this? (Choose two.)
A. Use local
B. Use JMS
C. Use BW
D. Use remote
E. UseLiveLink
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 During the testing of a process through the TIBCO iProcess Workspace (Browser) Client, you notice
that some data fields are not being populated in the TIBCO iProcess Engine. Which two steps can be
used to debug the form? (Choose two.)
A. ensure that the data fields' types are supported by theiProcess engine
B. use the form preview to test if all the parameters are being posted by the form
C. ensure that the fields are configured to be an output type under the data model of the form
D. ensure that all the form fields are mapped correctly on the field properties page of the form
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which gateway waits for each of its incoming sequences to be completed before moving to the next
task?
A. Parallel Gateway
B. Inclusive Gateway
C. Complex Gateway
D. Exclusive Data Gateway
E. Exclusive Event Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which type of data field corresponds to a dynamically addressed participant?
A. String
B. Boolean
C. Performer
D. Participant
E. Integer Number
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is a valid TIBCO iProcess script file function call to delete a file?
A. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\Temp\myfile.txt)
B. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\Temp\myfile.txt")
C. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(
D. \\Temp\\myfile.txt)
E. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt")
Answer: D

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Exam Code: OG0-091
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Part 1)
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Total Q&A: 234 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

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NO.2 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

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NO.6 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.7 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.9 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

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NO.10 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.11 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

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NO.13 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

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NO.14 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.17 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

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NO.18 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

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NO.19 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.1 On which two operating systems can a remote client installation be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 98 SP1
B. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0 SP6a
C. Microsoft Windows Me SP2
D. Microsoft Windows 2000 SP4
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You are performing a local UNIX NetBackup client installation.
Which two actions does the install script perform? (Choose two.)
A. adds entries to the inetd configuration file
B. tests connections to other NetBackup clients
C. enters all media servers as SERVER entries to the vm.conf file
D. enters the master server as a SERVER entry to the bp.conf file
Answer: AD

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NO.3 You have just installed a NetBackup 5.0 master server.
Which three NetBackup processes are running if the installation was successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 You are troubleshooting a robot or drive error and require additional Media Manager logs.
Which two debug directories can you create for robot or drive error troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. ltid
B. bpcd
C. reqlib
D. bpdm
Answer: AC

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NO.5 The latest Maintenance Pack has just been applied to your Microsoft Windows master server.
In which directory under <install dir>\ do you validate that it was installed successfully?
A. var
B. pack
C. patch
D. netbackup
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two ways can the UNIX client named clientA be configured to have the NetBackup master server
only back up clientA over its backup LAN (which is called clientA-bckup)? (Choose two.)
A. REQUIRED_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
B. NETBACKUP_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
C. Universal Settings > NetBackup Interface > clientA-bckup
D. Universal Settings > Required Network Interface > clientA-bckup
Answer: AD

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NO.7 You are performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003 system.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can choose NOT to install VSP.
B. You can change the default port numbers.
C. You cannot add more than five media servers.
D. You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 You want to restrict NetBackup administrative access to users logged into a particular media server.
How do you accomplish this?
A. add the media server name to the server list, and not the media server list
B. add the media server name to the media server list, and not the server list
C. add the media server name to both the server list and the media server list
D. remove the media server name from both the server list and the media server list
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three.)
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 Which NetBackup 5.0 feature can you install during a Microsoft Windows 2003 media server custom
installation?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. VERITAS Vault Option
C. Active Directory Backup tool
D. Backup Exec Tape Reader for NetBackup
Answer: A

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NO.11 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.Three tape drives are available
in the Storage Unit.Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.The client specified has 5 local file systems with no
exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be "Active" (not queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which media server version can be upgraded directly to NetBackup 5.0?
A. 3.4
B. 4.0
C. 4.5
D. 4.7
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are four valid versions of the Microsoft Windows OS for a NetBackup client installation?
(Choose four.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2003
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows ME
D. Microsoft Windows 2000
E. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
F. Microsoft Windows NT 3.5.1
Answer: ABDE

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NO.14 Which two actions do you perform prior to upgrading a media server from NetBackup 4.5 to 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. stop all bpsched processes
B. delete the existing bp.conf file
C. stop all of the NetBackup and Media Manager daemons
D. save copies of customized NetBackup scripts
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which script do you execute to uninstall a Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.16 How do you specify an exclude list for a single policy or schedule?
A. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Select the policy or schedule
B. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude list area type in the name of the policy or
schedule before the exclude list
C. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
D. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Include List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Task button.
Place the steps in the recommended order for installing a master server.
GTPanel14|GTPanel11|
GTPanel1|GTPanel7|
GTPanel2|GTPanel18|
GTPanel3|GTPanel13|
GTPanel4|GTPanel8| 213v
473e85ba34d8 473e85ba4197
Answer:

NO.18 A Microsoft Windows or UNIX NetBackup client is installed.
Which two commands can be performed on the client to verify proper name resolution of a NetBackup
master server with an IP address of 192.168.1.1 named clientA? (Choose two.)
A. bpclntcmd -ip clientA
B. bpclntcmd -hn clientA
C. bpclntcmd -hn 192.168.1.1
D. bpclntcmd -ip 192.168.1.1
Answer: BD

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NO.19 How many different backup image retention selections are available?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 24
D. 25
E. 99
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. The media servers' revision level may be one level higher than their respective clients' revision level.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media server's revision level.
Answer: CD

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NO.21 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.22 Which two criteria can be used to expire physical media? (Choose two.)
A. date
B. media full
C. number of mounts
D. media moved to a new server
E. change the backup retention level
Answer: AC

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NO.23 Which three commands can help resolve NetBackup network problems? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. bpverify
C. nslookup
D. nbclntcmd -ip
E. bpclntcmd -hn
Answer: ACE

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NO.24 After installing the master server, which three daemons should be running if the installation was
successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 You are installing a new NetBackup client that must communicate across a firewall to its master/media
server.
Which NetBackup 5.0 process helps reduce the number of ports that must be opened in the firewall?
A. inetd
B. bpcd
C. vnetd
D. firewalld
Answer: C

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NO.26 NetBackup is not able to communicate with a tape device after you have configured it.
What do you verify?
A. NetBackup is running as root.
B. Media Manager has been installed.
C. The operating system has inetd running.
D. The operating system has mapped the logical device to the physical device.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is NOT available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server.
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
Answer: AC

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NO.29 Which three catalogs are contained only on the master server? (Choose three.)
A. Class
B. Jobs
C. Devices
D. Image
Answer: ABD

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NO.30 Which three capabilities are available in the NetBackup 5.0 calendar-based scheduler? (Choose three.)
A. run a user backup job
B. run a NBU catalog backup
C. exclude a backup job on a specific date
D. run a backup job on the fourth Friday of the month
E. run a backup job on the last calendar day of the month
Answer: CDE

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.2 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.4 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.5 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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NO.6 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.8 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.11 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.15 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.18 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.19 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.20 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.11 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-066
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

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NO.13 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.15 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

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NO.16 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

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NO.19 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

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